[CrackMonkey] [email@example.com: CrackMonkey
whig at debian.org
Mon Apr 10 05:26:26 PDT 2000
Deirdre Saoirse wrote:
> > okay, since that happened now, it is a sale, right? What about after
> > they are married? Would it be fair use of common property? Or only
> > if he used half of them?
> I believe since he would have owned the asset prior to marriage, that it
> would still be "his." Any difference in value during marriage however,
> would be joint (as I understand these things).
Ah. I see. So you smoke it?
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